In my divorce settlement it states that I get the house ( which originally was my grandparents) it states that if i should sell the house in the future he gets a lump sum of $..it also states that if the house goes to either child that agreement is void. there is no stipulation in the decree regarding taxes or insurance on the home. Can he legally force me to sell the home or is his only claim valid if I sell it
Answer
An attorney has to read the whole decree, not just your summary of it, to answer this question.
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