In our divorce, the judge granted (at my wishes) ownership of our house to my ex-wife. The bank note on the house is only in her name. Some of the paperwork seems to have me listed as a borrower, when all i did was initial some paperwork about the escrow on the house. Now the house is being foreclosed on due to her lack of payment. Am i at all legally or financially responsible for any of this? In my eyes, all i should have to do is sign off on the deed of the house as the issuing bank takes possession.
Please clear this up. thanks!
Answer
You have no responsibility IF you didn't sign the note and mortgage.
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